Originally Posted by
4A2B
Q: Have you actually done the math and been charged on out of pocket funds as in your example?
The reason I ask, is that years ago when this new procedure came into being I asked the same question of the Company and I recall the answer was that they deduct all non taxable expenses from the bank first and then the taxable, and if their is a bank overage then the imputed taxes are only applied to the amount actually covered by Company money.
You're correct. Thanks and I'm sorry for stirring up a non-issue.
I got a bit mixed up due to the 2-ish month delay in expense report submission versus related action in the paycheck(resulting in last year's Nov/Dec events being taxed this year). Also, it appears that the taxable expense may be applied in one paycheck and the related deduction taken from another.