Since we are pretending to be smart: adding quotation marks around a single word signifies irony or opposite of intended definition. So, what you are saying is he failed at his use of sarcasm.

Additionally, you realize that the article you copied says that sarcasm is "manifested chiefly by vocal inflections," and "sarcasm is present in the spoken word." So, is one just supposed to assume sarcasm when tone cannot be conveyed otherwise in written text?