Then what about the language that IS in there sailingfun? Why would our negotiators agree to a process of only complying every other year? Why allow management to be heavily out of compliance one year, yet a following year's compliance means you've cured the previous year's non-compliance? Why not language that says the following year's percentages must be reversed in our favor to the same magnitude of the previous year's non-compliance? Instead, we specifically AGREE to it as long as they comply in the following year. Who would agree to that sailingfun? Will you?

Carl