Originally Posted by
sailingfun
A fixed portion of the profit sharing was traded for a 2% raise. That portion was worth somewhere between 0 and 1.9% depending on profit. It could never be more. The 2% is worth about 2.1% now and will continue to compound in the future.
I get that, but this was undersold with the 4833 discussion and from what I know, no one realized that touching PS was on the table until it suddenly showed up to essentially pay for a portion of the raise.
If I'm not mistaken we get approx. 1/3 of the PS. Does this mean this reduction paid for roughly 6% of the raise as the company was able to reduce PS to other employee groups?