Originally Posted by
Tuck
I'm confused here. What part of the 2006 contract allowed expensing a domestic hotel unless it was while deviating or on a back to back deadhead trip. I've never heard of it, never used it and can't find it anywhere in the 2006/2011 contract. It seems pretty clear - did a few auditors overlook it before? Maybe, but how exactly is this a grab from the contract?
IMO, any sudden deviation from past practice is a grab. You are correct in your reading of the CBA, but the fact remains that year over year pilots were allowed to expense a hotel prior to or after a trip as long as that expense fell within three days of the trip.
There's nothing in the contract that lays out the rules we follow regarding the sliding of travel expenses. Does that mean the company has the ability to simply deny that next month? One would hope that the historical precedent that's been established over many years of mutual agreement would work in our favor in that hypothetical scenario or in the actual situation regarding hotel use.