Originally Posted by
Truthanator
The rates are indeed less than half. I was making a simplistic statement.
You tried to turn it into a complex problem that has a whole slew of other factors. Now you don't want to address all the other factors that make your logic "logical".
So, not really the "end of the story there", is it.
If it is so much cheaper, as you are trying to claim, then why does it exist as it does?
I never said it was cheaper. In fact, I said there was a 26% spread. The rates are not less than half. Please show your work.
Edit: I will concede, if you are talking about the actual rate itself, and not how it is applied, then yes, it is less than half. So in a vacuum, you’re right. Unfortunately that really has no applicability to how this works.
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