Originally Posted by Southerner

I don't know that particular case, but I suspect that you misunderstood it. Employers are not required to hire 50% men and 50% women. They are required to be able to show that they do not discriminate on the basis of sex, which means that their stats have to show that of the people who applied, they do not discriminate against a protected class. You can't be sued for not hiring people who don't apply.

In other words, if 90% of those who apply are men, and 10% are women, that is fine. What is NOT fine is if 80% of the men who apply are hired, and 20% of the women who apply are hired.

The company must be able to show that of the protected classes who applied, the appropriate percentages are successful. Does that make sense?