Originally Posted by
Excargodog
Typically a 0% disability is a placeholder for something expected to deteriorate in the future. An example would be a serious knee joint injury. Right now the guy/gal has good strength and full range of motion, but them eventually getting degenerative arthritis is a virtual certainty and at some time in the future maybe even a knee joint replacement. A 0% establishes the service-connectedness of the condition, particularly important to those who separate before retirement and don't have access to Tricare or Uniformed Services care.
Yes, but again the questions all start with "have you ever...".
So if it was bad enough to get a residual, the original injury probably should have been disclosed.