Originally Posted by
rickair7777
1st amnd applies ONLY to the government (fed, state, local). Does not apply to the rest of the world.
You have almost zero "rights" associated with free speech with regards to private persons, corporations, or organizations.
You can say whatever you want, and they can impose consequences.
Also 1st amnd does not apply to conspiracy... you are not free to conspire, without consequence, to commit crimes or torts.
If the RLA didn’t exist, would the company be able to get an injunction and have the union sanctioned for this kind of speech? What I mean, is this issue a non-governmental matter? It was Congress and the president that made the RLA law. So isn’t it the government that is forbidding otherwise free speech? Has this question ever been answered by the scotus?