Originally Posted by
jayme
I’m having trouble understanding what “full retro” is supposed to mean.
It seems some folks think it means the pay differential in the TA compared to the old contract going back to the amendable date of the old contract.
But the leverage we have now didn’t exist on the amendable date. In fact, the union didn’t want to negotiate on the amendable date because the world economy was in flames. In other words, there were no raises to be had until fairly recently.
Can a “full retro” guy please give a reasonable explanation of how much they want in order to qualify as “full retro?”
jayme, I would argue that at a minimum, since both the company and ALPA agreed negotiations restarted and an environment in which both parties were willing to negotiate existed on 09/01/21, this should be the date to which, "Full", retro should be applied. Then, for the time between 04/01/20-09/01/21, a, "penalty", or, "delay pay", should be applied. Retro to me means the difference in my pay between the agreed upon rate and the old rate, during the days which the contract was amendable and we were working during, "status quo". It also means all 401K, PBP, and ESPP contributions that would have been made during that time, are adjusted accordingly for the higher rate. I believe the delay pay penalty should apply to the company prior to the agreed upon date of 09/01/21, because the company was given hundreds of millions...close to 2 billion dollars in grants and cheap loans. The company used this time and money to pay off its debts from the VX acquisition. It exited the covid years in a stronger financial position than it entered.