Originally Posted by
iceman21
If he has been passing color vision tests all along and cannot now, how is the FAA able to go after him for being colorblind all along?
“Passing” or otherwise knowingly applying for a medical with fraudulent intent.
It would have to be proven there is no evidence of sudden color vision loss.
Well if he’s still claiming and there is no “sudden” then it must have been there before.
It takes a lot to fail a color test. There’s the Ishihara then an alternate test or two then the lantern test.