Originally Posted by
MadPuppy
Interesting language in CBA, especially the "full bid period" phrase which implies that management can reduce to "48/60" for only one bid period and then furlough which will meet the CBA language requirements? Did I read that section correctly?
No. The "full bid period" means that one full bid period shall pass after the company states the intention to use 4.A.2.b. For example, if they wanted to stop buying up lines in JAN, they would have to announce their intention invoke 4.A.2.b. to prevent or delay a furlough in NOV. DEC would be "the full bid period" in which lines would still have to be bought up to normal min BLG.
What happens after the lines actually DO hit 48/60 and the first guys hit the street is unclear to me.
FWIW, I think the language is squishy and like the other posters already noted, I am not sure how much weight intent carries.