One of the primary points of the gay marriage debate is the ability to legally obtain tax and benefit treatment that straight people enjoy. Ok, fine. But, if there is a way to enjoy financial benefits single and you then fall under the tax code and benefits regimine as "single", what is the crime? Marriage has been marginalized to the point of a simple contract now as opposed to something greater, at least in the eyes of the court. We also have a president in our past that made it ok to be "technically accurate, but misleading" and there were no punishments. I am not turning this into a political thread at all, but I think it would be mighty hard to prove a sham divorce, particularly if they are filing individual tax returns, etc. Who is to say what constitutes "divorce"?