In my short research I found the following, sorry if it's long an badly formatted: (I did not provide the answers, so do not blame me for incorrect stuff):

Written Exam:
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1- Does the pilot have emerg auth to exclude anyone?
a. Yes – In the interest of safety

2- What fact determines # of fire extinguishers to be carried?
a. Number of seats (Not actual occupants)

3- CPT leaves his seat at 35k, what must SIC do?
a. Don and use oxygen mask

4- What Alt must all passengers have oxy supplied?
a. 15,000ft

5- Characteristics of AFT CG?
a. Lowest stall speed, Highest cruise speed, Most unstable

6- At holding fix (non IAF) you lose coms, what do you do?
a. Leave clearance limit at EFC time and fly to IAF and shoot approach as close to filed ETA or amended. Or if no EFC time received leave the hold and proceed to IAF and shoot approach.

7- Define Min Fuel:
a. Not an emergency, not priority – statement that an emergency could develop if there is delay.

8- Where is most dangerous area for thunderstorm windshear?
a. All sides & underneath

9- Where does windshear occur?
a. At all levels

10-No wind in TAF means?
a. Wind is calm and variable (00000Kts)

11- Min ALT for IFR flight?
a. 1000ft above highest altitude or prescribes MOCA if published.

12-How long is a temp medical good for?
a. 60days

13-Define MEA
a. Min Enroute Alt: 1) Guaranteed reception 2) Obs clearance 3) 8nm width

14-Which wind is most dangerous landing behind a heavy jet?
a. Light quartering tailwind.

15-What are PIC mins when PIC has less than 100hrs in type?
a. Add 100 & ½

16-List 12 runway environment items:
a. TDZ, TDZ M, TDZ L
b. RWY, RWY M, RWY L
c. Threshold, Threshold M, Threshold L
d. REIL, VASI
i. Req Vis
ii. Position to land

17-Which type of icing is most dangerous?
a. Clear – accumulates where removal equipment cannot remove it

18-Define hydroplaning
a. Layer of water prevents tire contact with concrete reducing braking and allowing momentum to carry the aircraft

19-When do runway centerlines turn to alternating red and white?
a. First 2000 of 3000 (Last 3000 is all red)

20-What is Definition of V1
Critical engine failure speed or decision speed. Engine failure below this speed shall result in an aborted takeoff; above this speed the take off run should be continued.

21-What is Definition of V2
Take off safety speed which must be attained at the 35-foot height at the end of the required runway distance. The best one-engine inoperative angle of climb.

22-What are the minimum cloud and visibility requirements of Class C airspace
500 below, 1000’ above, 2000’ horizontally and 3-SM

23-On a GPS approach, how much sensitivity is required at FAWP
0.3 nm

24-A Localizers angular area of operational service volume provides from blank to blank degrees either side of the course along a radius of 10 NM?
35 degrees to each side

25-What are the legal limits for alcohol and being a crewmember?
a. 8hrs
b. 0.04%
c. Not under the influence of alcohol
d. Not affected by drugs

26-What are flight time limits for flag carrier for 2 person crew
8 hours in 24-hour period, 32 hours in 7 days, 100 hours in 30 days and 1000 hrs in any calendar year

27-What are the flight time limits for domestic carrier 2 person crew
8/24 32/7 100/mo 1000/yr

28-What are the DH and RVR requirements for Cat I approach
a. 2400 RVR or ½ SM 200’ DA or 1800 RVR ¼ SM with RCL and TDZ lights

29- Runway aiming markers are position how far from threshold
a. 1000’

30- Choose example of what a NOTAM (L) would cover?
a. Taxi closure

31-You are flying to the station on the 360 radial, you have to hold on the 220 radial left (some test have right turns) turns, type of entry
PARALLEL

32-What is the definition of Hypoxia
o Reduced oxygen or not enough oxygen getting to the brain

33-Maximum airspeed below 10,000
o 250 KTS

34-FAR 121 requires a turbojet to land in what percent of runway at destination and from how high?
a. Must be able to land within 60% from 50ft

35-Alternates required for turbojet?
a.


36-Characteristics of wind direction in high pressure area
o Downwards, outwards and clockwise

37-Type of clouds associated with strong (sever) turbulence
o Mammata clouds, Comulonimbus, Lenticular, Rotor Clouds (mountain wave)

38-How long should inbound leg be flown above 14,000 feet
Choices: 1.5mins

39-Category C approach airspeeds
o 121 to 140 KTS radius 1.7nm

40-Category E approach airspeeds
165 KTS OR MORE, radius 4.5nm

41-When can you sidestep to another runway
Choices: Past the FAF with rwy environment in sight


42-Upon arrival at DH, what are the requirements to descend?
You pick one which doesn’t allow you to descend (beacon)

43-At what altitude do you cross middle marker, inner marker
o Middle Marker is Cat 1 = 200ft, inner marker is Cat 2 = 100ft

44-Resume own navigation means
o That you are responsible for your own navigation

45-PIC Line check required when
o 6 MONTH

46- What does this sign mean (picture of a runway distance remaining sign)

47-What is needed to land on a visual approach
They have you choose the two things§
o Runway insight and preceding aircraft


48-Range of a terminal VOR
o 25 NM 1000 AGL up to 12,000 AGL
o Range of a Low VOR
o 40 NM 1000 AGL TO 18,000 AG

49-o Distance between parallel runways
o 1500’ - 4300’ for PRM

50-You're on the final approach segment and wind shear is causing increasing performance. What is the danger to this situation?? Think in terms of landing short or long??

51-What is the lapse rate in the Troposphere?
a. 2deg Celsius per 1000ft

52-The megaphone needs to be located where in the airplane if only one is required?
a. Most rearward point of aircraft

53-Rosslyn LDA Rwy 19 approach plate: circling minimums (they don't mention in the question you're a cat c/d aircraft, but that's what they fly (CRJ) so assume that you are!)

54-Rosslyn LDA Rwy 19 approach plate: at what altitude do you cross MINIE

55-Rosslyn LDA Rwy 19 approach plate: what's the height of the highest obstacle on the plate?

56-What's the height of the MM for a cat I approach?
a. 200agl

57-Where's the jet stream in the winter and summer?
a. Winter South
b. Summer North

58-What does "D" stand for in D-ATIS
a. Digital as in: Digital ATIS

59-What will the altimeter read if you forget to reset your altimeter from 29.92 to 30.57 when descending from FL270 to an airport at 650' field elevation?
a. It will read zero

60-What are the fuel requirements for IFR
a. Destination then most distant ALT + 45min at normal cruise

61-Surface friction causes winds to .......(in relation to isobars, do they cross them or flow parallel to them?) and what effect does surface friction have on Coriolis force?
a. Cross the isobars
b. Retard effect of Coriollis – friction slows wind so weakens Coriollis

62-What does gate hold procedures mean?
a. Delays, expected to be ready for T/O upon reaching RWY unless you tell ATC

63-When must the emergency exit lights be armed or turned on?
a. Taxi, TO & Lnd

64-At what altitude does the second segment of climb begin?
a. Second Take-Off Segment is similar to first segment climb except that gear is up, V = 1.2 Vs, and the altitude is 400 feet above the ground.

65-How far out is the glide slope signal usable?
a. 10nm

66-What should you read back to ATC
a. Those parts of a clearance that require confirmation: Altitudes & Headings

HR
1. How did you prepare?
2. Why PSA?
3. What do you know about the company?
4. How did you hear about us?
5. How did you get into aviation?
6. When did you start flying seriously?
7. Month and yr of first flight?
8. Why should we hire you?
9. Captain wants to descend below MDA, what do you do?
10. Captain wants to continue approach when mins are too low outside OM
11. 30mi fm xyz at 30kft. Arrive at xyz @ 20k, you are doing 360kts. What rate of descent do you need?
12. TMAAT you had a good/effective manager, what made him good
13. TMAAT a time you were scared in the airplane
14. TMAAT a time you broke an FAR
15. TMAAT you felt you accomplished something
16. TMAAT you helped in a conflict
17. TMAAT you were stressed in the cockpit or declared an emergency
18. TMAAT a time that you failed
19. TMAAT you disagree with policy or regulation
20. Example of a pilot you admire and why?
21. Describe worst pilot you have flown with and why?
22. CPT wants to fly slightly over CG limits, what do you do?
23. What sets you apart from other candidates?
24. Senior CPT doesn’t want your help with checklists, what do you do?
25. 230 to 320 how long will this take? (90deg = 30sec) (10deg takes 3.3sec, 30deg:10sec, 90deg:30sec)
26. VOR NDB service volumes
27. What does CRM mean to you?

TECH:
1. 9 miles out from airport, how high should you be?
2. If you have 3000lbs fuel burn per hr, how much should you have for 45min reserve?
3. Brief CLT ILS18R
4. Definition of a crewmember
5. Definition of Radar Contact
6. When does oxygen need to be provided to passengers
7. You are flying 360, turn RIGHT to 270, how long will this take?
8. 91.175 – Memorize
a. What if RVR is given and lower than published
b. You’re on GS and airplane behind you is given updated RVR and it’s lower than published mins, can you still shoot the approach?
c. Would you land?
d. What if FAA examiner approached you after landing and accused you of landing below mins based on reported RVR?
9. 20000ft and 20nm from VOR, you need to be at 10k 10nm fm the VOR, you’re at 120kts what is your rate of descent?
a. 10k ft in 10nm =
10. FL290 20NM north of VOR. Intercept the 150 outbound and be at 6000ft @ 10DME. You’re at 320kts. What ROD and how long to reach the 10DME? (Basically 10nm @ 320kts =?)
11. Difference between an inductor and a transducer
12. 135 duty times
13. 121 duty times
14.


SIM:
1. T/O 36L CLT, climb at 12deg to 3000ft, accel to 250kts and climb to 6000ft. RMI – what radial fm Charlotte are we on? Hold instructions and current radial – what entry? Descend to 3000ft while slowing to 200kts. ILS 18R intercept at 30deg & 3000ft, <3deg corrections – down to mins. Finish.