Originally Posted by
ghilis101
Food for thought. If the company foresees itself being in compliance soon with the current contract language, why are they demanding new language? Come on now...
Also lets not forget this is the precursor to a Pacific JV. Precedent setting in a contract will get them this provision on the Asia side very easily. No no no no no no no. For the love of .... No
Perhaps because we demanded a new and more enforceable compliance period. The company did not demand the switch from EASK. It evolved over the course of negotiations as a mutual concept.