Can you help me out and explain the connection here, and give an example so that I can pass on the logic to those I fly with?

The "no monetization" framework I see is that with outsourcing, our level of higher paying international flying, and the associated salaries decline (the numerator in the individual PS equation), while the total salary pool of eligible salaries (the denominator) shrinks slightly less, but the profit stays the same, assuming just a transfer of flying (no growth). That's just slightly less PS for us, maybe not enough to notice.

With monetization, .... (here's where you explain or correct the above, please).