Originally Posted by
tennisguru
No. Rest must be prospective, meaning from a specific point in time looking forward you have to know you are going to have 30 hours of rest. Entering a 28 hour rest, then getting delayed a few hours on the next day, does not constitute a legal 30 hour rest period for 30/168 purposes. If, however, you are scheduled for a 29:55 rest, and block in 6 minutes early, at that point you know you now have 30:01 of rest going forward and that would count.
Thanks, regardless I'm sure I'm going to have to fight them over it