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Old 11-27-2006 | 12:58 PM
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CE750
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From: FAR part 347 (91+121+135)
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Originally Posted by Onfinal
CE750:

I would say it depends on whether that test is an appropriate measure of the candidates performance in the particular job. Even then, it could be prejudiced against what would otherwise be a superior candidate. Should a woman be required to lift the same weight as a man for example? Well if it was for a position as a weightlifter, I guess so! Most jobs are too dynamic to be reduced to a single parameter. I went to a High School that required a special test to enter. I passed and as a result was accepted into the school. Entering as a freshman, I met a girl that had failed the test, but was allowed to take a special summer program and still enter. Well she graduated near the top of the class, much highter than me.

In a nutshell, these tests are usually not an indicator of performance. Affirmative action requires first of all that the applicant is qualified. Granted, the devil is probably in the details of the meaing of "qualified".
valid points made, however consider that in seleciton of pilots in the military, or more relevantly, Fire Depratment or Police Dept., there are always far more "qualified" applicants than slots... and in the end, if we're to be objective in picking who gets in... and we're to use phsyical fitness/strenght as factors, then a 100% score should be the same for man or women, correct? But the reality is that it's impossible for a women to score the same as a man, so they "gender norm" these tests...

I say that this is unfair at best, and unsafe at worse.
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